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Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route does R1 use to reach host

A. default route

B. network route

C. host route

D. floating static route

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit. Which prefix does CertBus-R use to Host A?





Correct Answer: D

Host A address fall within the address range. However, if more than one route to the same subnet exist (router will use the longest stick match, which match more specific route to the subnet). If there are route and, the router will forward the packet to /29 rather than /28.

Question 3:

A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two.)

A. input errors

B. frame

C. giants


E. runts

Correct Answer: AD

Whenever the physical transmission has problems, the receiving device might receive a frame whose bits have changed values. These frames do not pass the error detection logic as implemented in the FCS field in the Ethernet trailer. The

receiving device discards the frame and counts it as some kind of input error. Cisco switches list this error as a CRC error. Cyclic redundancy check (CRC) is a term related to how the FCS math detects an error.

The “input errors” includes runts, giants, no buffer, CRC, frame, overrun, and ignored counts.

The output below show the interface counters with the “show interface s0/0/0” command:

Question 4:

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way that they establish a connection between two endpoints?

A. TCP uses the three-way handshake, and UDP does not guarantee message delivery.

B. TCP uses synchronization packets, and UDP uses acknowledgement packets.

C. UDP provides reliable message transfer, and TCP is a connectionless protocol.

D. UDP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and FIN bits in the frame header while TCP uses SYN, SYN ACK, and ACK bits.

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

Which 802.11 frame type is association response?

A. management

B. protected frame

C. action

D. control

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/802.11_Frame_Types

Question 6:

In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

A. A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them.

B. A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks.

C. A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch.

D. A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

Correct Answer: C

Spine-leaf architecture is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and leaves (such as an access layer). Spine-leaf topologies provide high-bandwidth, low-latency, nonblocking server-to-server connectivity.

Leaf (aggregation) switches are what provide devices access to the fabric (the network of spine and leaf switches) and are typically deployed at the top of the rack. Generally, devices connect to the leaf switches.

Devices can include servers, Layer 4-7 services (firewalls and load balancers), and WAN or Internet routers. Leaf switches do not connect to other leaf switches. In spine-and-leaf architecture, every leaf should connect to every spine in a full


Spine (aggregation) switches are used to connect to all leaf switches and are typically deployed at the end or middle of the row. Spine switches do not connect to other spine switches.

Question 7:

Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

A. The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources.

B. Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch.

C. The hypervisor can virtual physical components including CPU, memory, and storage.

D. Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor.

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

A. ipv6 address dhcp

B. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64

C. ipv6 address autoconfig

D. ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

Correct Answer: C

The “ipv6 address autoconfig” command causes the device to perform IPv6 stateless address auto-configuration to discover prefixes on the link and then to add the EUI-64 based addresses to the interface. Addresses are configured depending on the prefixes received in Router Advertisement (RA) messages. The device will listen for RA messages which are transmitted periodically from the router (DHCP Server). This RA message allows a host to create a global IPv6 address from:


Its interface identifier (EUI-64 address)


Link Prefix (obtained via RA)

Note: Global address is the combination of Link Prefix and EUI-64 address

Question 9:

What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?

A. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table.

B. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.

C. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.

D. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.

Correct Answer: C

If the destination MAC address is not in the CAM table (unknown destination MAC address), the switch sends the frame out all other ports that are in the same VLAN as the received frame. This is called flooding. It does not flood the frame out the same port on which the frame was received.

Question 10:

An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routes. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

A. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address

B. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address

C. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address

D. interface e0/0 description to HQ-A370:98968 ip address

Correct Answer: D

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