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Question 1:

Which three statements about RSTP are true? (Choose three.)

A. RSTP significantly reduces topology reconverging time after a link failure.

B. RSTP expands the STP port roles by adding the alternate and backup roles.

C. RSTP port states are blocking, discarding, learning, or forwarding.

D. RSTP provides a faster transition to the forwarding state on point-to-point links than STP does.

E. RSTP also uses the STP proposal-agreement sequence.

F. RSTP uses the same timer-based process as STP on point-to-point links.

Correct Answer: ABD


Convergence Cisco enhanced the original 802.1D specification with features such as Uplink Fast, Backbone Fast, and Port Fast to speed up the convergence time of a bridged network. The drawback is that these mechanisms are proprietary and need additional configuration. Alternate and Backup Port Roles These two port roles correspond to the blocking state of 802.1D. A blocked port is defined as not being the designated or root port. A blocked port receives a more useful BPDU than the one it sends out on its segment.

Remember that a port absolutely needs to receive BPDUs in order to stay blocked. RSTP introduces these two roles for this purpose. Rapid Transition to Forwarding State Rapid transition is the most important feature introduced by 802.1w. The legacy STA passively waited for the network to converge before it turned a port into the forwarding state. The achievement of faster convergence was a matter of tuning the conservative default parameters (forward delay and max_age timers) and often put the stability of the network at stake. The new rapid STP is able to actively confirm that a port can safely transition to the forwarding state without having to rely on any timer configuration. There is now a real feedback mechanism that takes place between RSTP-compliant bridges. In order to achieve fast convergence on a port, the protocol relies upon two new variables: edge ports and link type.

Question 2:

At which layer of the OSI model is RSTP used to prevent loops?

A. physical

B. data link

C. network

D. transport

Correct Answer: B

RSTP and STP operate on switches and are based on the exchange of Bridge Protocol Data Units (BPDUs) between switches. One of the most important fields in BPDUs is the Bridge Priority in which the MAC address is used to elect the Root Bridge , RSTP operates at Layer 2. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk389/tk621/technologies_white_paper09186a0080094cfa.shtml

Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

A technician has configured the FastEthernet 0/1 interface on Sw11 as an access link in VLAN

1. Based on the output from the show vlan brief command issued on Sw12, what will be the result of making this change on Sw11?

A. Only the hosts in VLAN 1 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.

B. The hosts in all VLANs on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.

C. Only the hosts in VLAN 10 and VLAN 15 on the two switches will be able to communicate with each other.

D. Hosts will not be able to communicate between the two switches.

Correct Answer: D

VLANs are local to each switch\’s database, and VLAN information is not passed between switches without implementing VLAN Trunk Protocol (VTP). Trunks carry traffic from all VLANs to and from the switch by default but, can be configured

to carry only specified VLAN traffic. Trunk links are required to pass VLAN information between switches. So Sw11 port should be trunk not access port. Additionally, there are no ports assigned to VLAN 1.

Question 4:

Which statements are true about EIGRP successor routes? (Choose two.)

A. A successor route is used by EIGRP to forward traffic to a destination.

B. Successor routes are saved in the topology table to be used if the primary route fails.

C. Successor routes are flagged as \’active\’ in the routing table.

D. A successor route may be backed up by a feasible successor route.

E. Successor routes are stored in the neighbor table following the discovery process.

Correct Answer: AD

Introduction to EIGRP http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080093f07.shtml

Feasible Successors A destination entry is moved from the topology table to the routing table when there is a feasible successor. All minimum cost paths to the destination form a set. From this set, the neighbors that have an advertised metric less than the current routing table metric are considered feasible successors. Feasible successors are viewed by a router as neighbors that are downstream with respect to the destination. These neighbors and the associated metrics are placed in the forwarding table. When a neighbor changes the metric it has been advertising or a topology change occurs in the network, the set of feasible successors may have to be re-evaluated. However, this is not categorized as a route recomputation.

Question 5:

What is the default maximum number of equal-cost paths that can be placed into the routing table of a Cisco OSPF router?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 16

D. unlimited

Correct Answer: B

4 is the default number of routes that OSPF will include in routing table if more than 4 equal cost routes exist for the same subnet. However, OSPF can include up to 16 equal cost routes in the routing table and perform load balancing amongst them. In order to configure this feature, you need to use the OSPF subcommand maximum-paths, i.e. maximum-paths 16.

Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

If the router Cisco returns the given output and has not had its router ID set manually, what value will OSPF use as its router ID?





Correct Answer: D

Question 7:

Which statement describes the process ID that is used to run OSPF on a router?

A. It is globally significant and is used to represent the AS number.

B. It is locally significant and is used to identify an instance of the OSPF database.

C. It is globally significant and is used to identify OSPF stub areas.

D. It is locally significant and must be the same throughout an area.

Correct Answer: B

Question 8:

What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.)

A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area.

B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated.

C. It removes the need for virtual links.

D. It increases LSA response times.

E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies.

Correct Answer: BC

Question 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which of these correctly describes the results of port security violation of an unknown packet?

A. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; no SNMP or syslog messages

B. port enabled; unknown packets dropped; SNMP or syslog messages

C. port disabled; no SNMP or syslog messages

D. port disabled; SNMP or syslog messages

Correct Answer: D

Configuring Port Security http://packetlife.net/blog/2010/may/3/port-security/

We can view the default port security configuration with show port-security:


Switchport Security Violations

The second piece of switchport port-security that must be understood is a security violation including what it is what causes it and what the different violation modes that exist. A switchport violation occurs in one of two situations:

When the maximum number of secure MAC addresses has been reached (by default, the maximum number of secure MAC addresses per switchport is limited to


An address learned or configured on one secure interface is seen on another secure interface in the same VLAN The action that the device takes when one of these violations occurs can be configured:

Protect–This mode permits traffic from known MAC addresses to continue to be forwarded while dropping traffic from unknown MAC addresses when over the allowed MAC address limit. When configured with this mode, no notification action

is taken when traffic is dropped. Restrict–This mode permits traffic from known MAC addresses to continue to be forwarded while dropping traffic from unknown MAC addresses when over the allowed MAC address limit. When configured

with this mode, a syslog message is logged, a Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) trap is sent, and a violation counter is incremented when traffic is dropped.

Shutdown–This mode is the default violation mode; when in this mode, the switch will automatically force the switchport into an error disabled (err-disable) state when a violation occurs. While in this state, the switchport forwards no traffic.

The switchport can be brought out of this error disabled state by issuing the errdisable recovery cause CLI command or by disabling and re-enabling the switchport. Shutdown VLAN–This mode mimics the behavior of the shutdown mode but

limits the error disabled state the specific violating VLAN.

Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

The following commands are executed on interface fa0/1 of 2950Switch.

2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky 2950Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security maximum 1 The Ethernet frame that is shown arrives on interface fa0/1. What two functions will occur when this frame is received by 2950Switch? (Choose two.)

A. The MAC address table will now have an additional entry of fa0/1 FFFF.FFFF.FFFF.

B. Only host A will be allowed to transmit frames on fa0/1.

C. This frame will be discarded when it is received by 2950Switch.

D. All frames arriving on 2950Switch with a destination of 0000.00aa.aaaa will be forwarded out fa0/1.

E. Hosts B and C may forward frames out fa0/1 but frames arriving from other switches will not be forwarded out fa0/1.

F. Only frames from source 0000.00bb.bbbb, the first learned MAC address of 2950Switch, will be forwarded out fa0/1.

Correct Answer: BD

Question 11:

What would be the destination Layer 2 address in the frame header for a frame that is being forwarded by Dubai to the host address of

A. 825

B. 230

C. 694

D. 387

Correct Answer: C

According to command output is using the 694 dlci value. http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/ios/12_2/wan/command/reference/wrffr4.html#wp1029343

Question 12:

Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two.)

A. CHAP uses a two-way handshake.

B. CHAP uses a three-way handshake.

C. CHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.

D. CHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.

E. CHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.

F. CHAP has no protection from playback attacks.

Correct Answer: BC

Understanding and Configuring PPP CHAP Authentication http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk713/tk507/technologies_tech_note09186a00800b4131.shtml

One-Way and Two-Way Authentication

CHAP is defined as a one-way authentication method. However, you use CHAP in both directions to create a two-way authentication. Hence, with two-way CHAP, a separate three-way handshake is initiated by each side. In the Cisco CHAP

implementation, by default, the called party must authenticate the calling party (unless authentication is completely turned off). Therefore, a one-way authentication initiated by the called party is the minimum possible authentication. However,

the calling party can also verify the identity of the called party, and this results in a two-way authentication.

One-way authentication is often required when you connect to non-Cisco devices.

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network associate has configured OSPF with the command: City(config-router)# network area 0

After completing the configuration, the associate discovers that not all the interfaces are participating in OSPF. Which three of the interfaces shown in the exhibit will participate in OSPF according to this configuration statement? (Choose three.)

A. FastEthernet0 /0

B. FastEthernet0 /1

C. Serial0/0

D. Serial0/1.102

E. Serial0/1.103

F. Serial0/1.104

Correct Answer: BCD

The “network equals to network This network has:

Increment: 64 (/26= 1111 1111.1111 1111.1111 1111.1100 0000) Network address: Broadcast address:

Therefore all interface in the range of this network will join OSPF – B C D are correct.

Question 14:

What can be done to Frame Relay to resolve split-horizon issues?(Choose two.)

A. Disable Inverse ARP.

B. Create a full-mesh topology.

C. Develop multipoint subinterfaces.

D. Configure point-to-point subinterfaces.

E. Remove the broadcast keyword from the frame-relay map command.

Correct Answer: BD

IP split horizon checking is disabled by default for Frame Relay encapsulation to allow routing updates to go in and out of the same interface. An exception is the Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) for which split horizon must be explicitly disabled.

Certain protocols such as AppleTalk, transparent bridging, and Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX) cannot be supported on partially meshed networks because they require split horizon to be enabled (a packet received on an interface cannot be transmitted over the same interface, even if the packet is received and transmitted on different virtual circuits).

Configuring Frame Relay subinterfaces ensures that a single physical interface is treated as multiple virtual interfaces. This capability allows you to overcome split horizon rules so packets received on one virtual interface can be forwarded to another virtual interface, even if they are configured on the same physical interface.

Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

The show interfaces serial 0/1 command was issued on the R10-1 router. Based on the output displayed which statement is correct?

A. The cable connected to the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router is a DTE cable.

B. The R10-1 router can ping the router interface connected to the serial 0/1 interface.

C. The clock rate used for interface serial 0/1 of the R10-1 router is 1,544,000 bits per second.

D. The CSU used with the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router has lost connection to the service provider.

E. The interface of the remote router connected to the serial 0/1 interface of the R10-1 router is using the default serial interface encapsulation.

Correct Answer: E

Cisco High-Level Data Link Controller (HDLC) is the Cisco proprietary protocol for Cisco HDLC is the default encapsulation type for the serial interfaces.

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